Quote:
Originally posted by soup sandwich
But doesn't the moral code change? And, if so, how do we account for the fact that the moral code changes? If the code is instinctive, why is the moral code of a person in 2005 (e.g., anti-slavery) different than the code of a person in 100 A.D. (slavery of one's enemies is OK)? Has our creator endowed the person of 2005 with different rights than the person of 100 A.D.
If this has been covered before in this discussion I apologize, I haven't read the full thread.
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I don't think it has really changed. I think even in 100 A.D. people knew instinctively that slavery was wrong, but certain people benefited and therefor kept it going. During Roman times many philosophers suggested slavery was wrong. I think as time moves forward there is a slow progression towards changes in the law and human societies conforming more towards the code.
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