Quote:
Originally posted by Spanky
What is wrong with this statement:
If morality is not based purely on ones self interest, then if someone uses the word morality, right or wrong (in the moral sense) in a conversation withsomeone else, those words can really only have meaning if the communicater and the person being communicated with agree on a common moral code.
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Generally, not much. Here are my nits on the statement -- I think here needs only be agreement on the relevant elements of a common moral code. If we're talking about "thou shalt not kill" evaluations of moral conduct, the way our respective moral codes view polygamy probably isn't relevant.
I also don't know if the introductory clause is necessary. If someone has a moral code based entirely on self-interest (assuming such a code rises to the level of a moral code), I'm not sure why the rest of the statement wouldn't apply.
