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Originally posted by Say_hello_for_me
But this brings up another thought. I've heard in India or China, people are aborting girls waaaay disproportionately. I'd imagine here, people are aborting fetuses who are likely to be handicapped or ill etc. But I can't prove it. Anyone ever hear of any theories as to whether the incidence of Down's Syndrome kids or whatever is lower since 1973 or thereabouts... as a result of abortion? Couldn't help but wonder.
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I suspect that abortion of fetuses with Down's Syndrome or other detectable and severe developmental problems is disproportionately high in places other than China and India. Like in the US.
Once a woman reaches her late 30s -- I think it's 36 -- she is likely, if not required, to be screened during pregnancy for Down's Syndrome and several other serious developmental problems. That's because the incidence of such conditions begins to climb at that age (and increases to a really scary level within a few years). The process of this test leads people who would not otherwise consider having an abortion to consider it -- in other words, to consider terminating a pregnancy that was planned and desired, because they don't want to bring severely disabled child into the world. I have personally been through this discussion, though thankfully the tests were all negative and the decision we'd reached didn't have to be put into effect. And I know that I'm not alone in this. (In fact a friend recently went through the same process, but had to follow through with her decision.)
So, to answer your question -- I'm sure the incidence of Down's is lower than it would be because of abortion. I doubt that this trend began as early as 1973, however, because the testing procedures have gotten much more sophisticated and accurate in more recent years. And the overall incidence may well be up since, say, the 60s, because of other factors -- most importantly, more women waiting until they are in their late 30s or older to get pregnant.
